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It contains general instructions including no negative marking and multiple-choice questions on Indian legal topics such as advocates’ contingency fee rules, land acquisition objections and notice conditions, consumer protection in joint development agreements, search and seizure requirements under BNSS 2023, legal heir declarations under Uttarakhand rules, and criminal procedure and related case-rights issues.",{"@graph":69,"@context":123},[70,84,106],{"@type":71,"itemListElement":72},"BreadcrumbList",[73,77,79,82],{"item":74,"name":75,"@type":76,"position":8},"https://docshare.wps.com","Home","ListItem",{"item":78,"name":9,"@type":76,"position":14},"https://docshare.wps.com/document/",{"item":80,"name":20,"@type":76,"position":81},"https://docshare.wps.com/document/exam/",3,{"item":83,"name":65,"@type":76,"position":19},"https://docshare.wps.com/document/aibe-21-2026-set-c-question-paper/320223/",{"url":83,"name":65,"@type":85,"image":86,"author":91,"headline":65,"publisher":94,"fileFormat":97,"inLanguage":63,"description":67,"dateModified":98,"datePublished":99,"encodingFormat":97,"isAccessibleForFree":100,"interactionStatistic":101},"DigitalDocument",{"url":87,"@type":88,"width":89,"height":90},"https://docshare.wps.com/thumbnails/aibe-21-2026-set-c-question-paper/320223.png","ImageObject",300,407,{"name":92,"@type":93},"Riley West","Person",{"url":74,"name":95,"@type":96},"DocShare","Organization","application/pdf","2026-11-08","2026-09-21",true,{"@type":102,"interactionType":103,"userInteractionCount":105},"InteractionCounter",{"@type":104},"ViewAction",11,{"@type":107,"mainEntity":108},"FAQPage",[109,115,119],{"name":110,"@type":111,"acceptedAnswer":112},"How long is the AIBE (21) 2026 exam and how many questions does it include?","Question",{"text":113,"@type":114},"The test duration is 3 hours and the question paper consists of 100 questions.","Answer",{"name":116,"@type":111,"acceptedAnswer":117},"Is there any negative marking in this question paper?",{"text":118,"@type":114},"No negative marking is stated in the general instructions.",{"name":120,"@type":111,"acceptedAnswer":121},"What is tested in these questions in general?",{"text":122,"@type":114},"The paper tests legal knowledge through multiple-choice questions based on specific statutory provisions and legal principles, such as advocates’ fee restrictions, land acquisition procedures, consumer protection, and criminal procedure rules.","https://schema.org",{"og:url":83,"og:type":125,"og:title":65,"og:site_name":95,"og:description":67},"article",{"robots":127,"canonical":83},"index,follow",{"doc_id":129,"site_id":62},320223,1790082937,{"code":4,"msg":5,"data":132},{"doc_id":129,"user_id":133,"nickname":92,"user_avatar":134,"doc_module":4,"category_id":19,"category_name":20,"doc_title":65,"doc_description":67,"doc_content":135,"file_id":136,"file_url":137,"file_type":138,"file_size":139,"view_count":105,"is_deleted":4,"is_public":8,"is_downloadable":8,"audit_status":8,"page_count":140,"language":141,"language_code":63,"site_id":62,"html_lang":63,"table_of_contents":142,"faqs":143,"seo_title":144,"seo_description":67,"update_tm":145,"read_time":146,"preview_page_count":4},1099523885074,"https://ap-avatar.wpscdn.com/davatar_9964176cb1d06d4a9deccf72a44ae3dc","AIBE (21) 2026 (Set-C)  \nQuestion Paper PDF  \nConducted by Bar Council of India (BCI)  \nGeneral Instructions  \n(i) The test is of 3 hours duration.  \n(ii) The question paper consists of 100 questions. The maximum marks are 100 .  \n(iii) There is no negetive marking.  \n1. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II.  \nStatement: The Bar Council of India derives its rule-making power from Section 49(1)(c) of the Advocates Act, 1961, which authorises it to frame rules governing professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates. Rule 20 framed thereunder categorically bars an advocate from stipulating for, or receiving, any fee whose quantum is dependent upon the outcome of litigation, or from entering into any arrangement to share in its proceeds. An advocate who contravenes this Rule is liable to be proceeded against under Section 35 of the Act.  \nConclusion I: An advocate may lawfully enter into an outcome-linked fee arrangement so long as the client’s written consent is obtained prior to the engagement.  \nConclusion II: An advocate who violates the prohibition on contingency-based fees may face disciplinary action under the Advocates Act, 1961.  \nIn the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?  \n(A) Only Conclusion I follows  \n(B) Only Conclusion II follows  \n(C) Both Conclusions I and II follow  \n(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows  \n2. Under the law relating to land acquisition under the relevant laws in India, which of the  \nfollowing statements is not true?  \n(A) The Collector shall publish the public notice on his website.  \n(B) Such interested persons may file objections within 6 months of the notice having been issued.  \n(C) All persons interested in the land in question shall appear personally before the Collector.  \n(D) A minimum notice period of 30 days is to be given to all the persons interested.  \n\n| 3. Whether a landowner who enters into a Joint Development Agreement with a builder, contributing land in exchange for 50% of the developed property and a monetary deposit can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 alleging construction defects and delay? Which of the following statements is most accurate?\u003Cbr>(A) The landowner is not a consumer as the transaction constitutes a commercial joint venture.\u003Cbr>(B) The landowner is a consumer if defects exist, irrespective of the nature of the transaction.\u003Cbr>(C) The landowner is a consumer as he did not construct himself.\u003Cbr>(D) The landowner is a consumer unless profit motive is proven. |\n| --- |\n| 4. Under Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, what is now a mandatory requirement for the process of search and seizure conducted by the police?\u003Cbr>(A) The acquisition of a signed written confession from the occupant of the premises\u003Cbr>(B) The presence of a Judicial Magistrate during the search\u003Cbr>(C) The presence of at least five local residents as independent witnesses\u003Cbr>(D) The documentation of the entire search and seizure process via audio-video electronic recording |\n\n5. Under the Uniform Civil Code Rules Uttarakhand, 2025, when is an application for declaration of legal heir(s) forwarded to the Registrar General?  \n(A) After thirty days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action  \n(B) After ten days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action  \n(C) After fifteen days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action  \n(D) None of the above  \n\n| 6. Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, provides a summary legal remedy for the maintenance of spouses, children, and parents who are unable to support themselves?\u003Cbr>(A) Section 125\u003Cbr>(B) Section 320\u003Cbr>(C) Section 107\u003Cbr>(D) Section 144 |\n| --- |\n| 7. Section 233 of the Companies Act, 2013, deals with “fast track merger”. What is the time duration and the concerned authority for approval?\u003Cbr>(A) 1 Year, Regional Director\u003Cbr>(B) 60–90 Days, Regio","cbCairfQrDpxgFYn","https://ap.wps.com/l/cbCairfQrDpxgFYn","pdf",222479,31,"English","# General Instructions\n## Question 1: Statement and Conclusions\n## Question 2: Land acquisition not true\n## Question 3: Consumer Protection in joint development\n## Question 4: Search and seizure under BNSS 2023\n## Question 5: Legal heir declarations forwarding timeline\n## Question 6: Section 125 maintenance remedy\n## Question 7: Fast track merger approval time and authority\n## Question 8: Appeal against Second Class Magistrate sentence\n## Question 9: BNSS Section 173 informant notification timeline\n## Question 10: Parmanand Katara associated right","[{\"question\":\"How long is the AIBE (21) 2026 exam and how many questions does it include?\",\"answer\":\"The test duration is 3 hours and the question paper consists of 100 questions.\"},{\"question\":\"Is there any negative marking in this question paper?\",\"answer\":\"No negative marking is stated in the general instructions.\"},{\"question\":\"What is tested in these questions in general?\",\"answer\":\"The paper tests legal knowledge through multiple-choice questions based on specific statutory provisions and legal principles, such as advocates’ fee restrictions, land acquisition procedures, consumer protection, and criminal procedure rules.\"}]","AIBE (21) 2026 - Set-C Question Paper | PDF",1789949451,78]